Fast Facts for Board Review

Review the PDF of the fact sheet on allergic contact dermatitis

Practice Questions

1. The most common allergen of hand dermatitis in hairdressers can cross-react with which of the following allergens?

a. benzocaine
b. para-aminobenzoic acid
c. procaine
d. sulfanomides
e. all of the above

2. Patients with a documented allergy to quaternium-15 should avoid all of the following ingredients except:

a. bronopol
b. diazolidinyl urea
c. DMDM hydantoin
d. imidazolidinyl urea
e. paraben mix

3. Which of the following is a screening agent for hydrocortisone allergy?

a. budesonide
b. clobetasol
c. desoximetasone
d. paraben mix
e. tixocortol pivalate

4. This allergen often is found in black synthetic henna tattoos:

a. paraben mix
b. potassium dichromate
c. PPD
d. quaternium-15
e. thimerosol

5. A patient with a documented allergy to paraben mix also should avoid the following agent:

a. bronopol
b. diazolidinyl urea
c. DMDM hydantoin
d. PPD
e. thiuram mix

Practice Question Answers

1. The most common allergen of hand dermatitis in hairdressers can cross-react with which of the following allergens?

a. benzocaine
b. para-aminobenzoic acid
c. procaine
d. sulfanomides
e. all of the above

2. Patients with a documented allergy to quaternium-15 should avoid all of the following ingredients except:

a. bronopol
b. diazolidinyl urea
c. DMDM hydantoin
d. imidazolidinyl urea
e. paraben mix

3. Which of the following is a screening agent for hydrocortisone allergy?

a. budesonide
b. clobetasol
c. desoximetasone
d. paraben mix
e. tixocortol pivalate

4. This allergen often is found in black synthetic henna tattoos:

a. paraben mix
b. potassium dichromate
c. PPD
d. quaternium-15
e. thimerosol

5. A patient with a documented allergy to paraben mix also should avoid the following agent:

a. bronopol
b. diazolidinyl urea
c. DMDM hydantoin
d. PPD
e. thiuram mix

Review the PDF of the fact sheet on allergic contact dermatitis

Practice Questions

1. The most common allergen of hand dermatitis in hairdressers can cross-react with which of the following allergens?

a. benzocaine
b. para-aminobenzoic acid
c. procaine
d. sulfanomides
e. all of the above

2. Patients with a documented allergy to quaternium-15 should avoid all of the following ingredients except:

a. bronopol
b. diazolidinyl urea
c. DMDM hydantoin
d. imidazolidinyl urea
e. paraben mix

3. Which of the following is a screening agent for hydrocortisone allergy?

a. budesonide
b. clobetasol
c. desoximetasone
d. paraben mix
e. tixocortol pivalate

4. This allergen often is found in black synthetic henna tattoos:

a. paraben mix
b. potassium dichromate
c. PPD
d. quaternium-15
e. thimerosol

5. A patient with a documented allergy to paraben mix also should avoid the following agent:

a. bronopol
b. diazolidinyl urea
c. DMDM hydantoin
d. PPD
e. thiuram mix

Practice Question Answers

1. The most common allergen of hand dermatitis in hairdressers can cross-react with which of the following allergens?

a. benzocaine
b. para-aminobenzoic acid
c. procaine
d. sulfanomides
e. all of the above

2. Patients with a documented allergy to quaternium-15 should avoid all of the following ingredients except:

a. bronopol
b. diazolidinyl urea
c. DMDM hydantoin
d. imidazolidinyl urea
e. paraben mix

3. Which of the following is a screening agent for hydrocortisone allergy?

a. budesonide
b. clobetasol
c. desoximetasone
d. paraben mix
e. tixocortol pivalate

4. This allergen often is found in black synthetic henna tattoos:

a. paraben mix
b. potassium dichromate
c. PPD
d. quaternium-15
e. thimerosol

5. A patient with a documented allergy to paraben mix also should avoid the following agent:

a. bronopol
b. diazolidinyl urea
c. DMDM hydantoin
d. PPD
e. thiuram mix

Review the PDF of the fact sheet on allergic contact dermatitis

Practice Questions

1. The most common allergen of hand dermatitis in hairdressers can cross-react with which of the following allergens?

a. benzocaine
b. para-aminobenzoic acid
c. procaine
d. sulfanomides
e. all of the above

2. Patients with a documented allergy to quaternium-15 should avoid all of the following ingredients except:

a. bronopol
b. diazolidinyl urea
c. DMDM hydantoin
d. imidazolidinyl urea
e. paraben mix

3. Which of the following is a screening agent for hydrocortisone allergy?

a. budesonide
b. clobetasol
c. desoximetasone
d. paraben mix
e. tixocortol pivalate

4. This allergen often is found in black synthetic henna tattoos:

a. paraben mix
b. potassium dichromate
c. PPD
d. quaternium-15
e. thimerosol

5. A patient with a documented allergy to paraben mix also should avoid the following agent:

a. bronopol
b. diazolidinyl urea
c. DMDM hydantoin
d. PPD
e. thiuram mix

Practice Question Answers

1. The most common allergen of hand dermatitis in hairdressers can cross-react with which of the following allergens?

a. benzocaine
b. para-aminobenzoic acid
c. procaine
d. sulfanomides
e. all of the above

2. Patients with a documented allergy to quaternium-15 should avoid all of the following ingredients except:

a. bronopol
b. diazolidinyl urea
c. DMDM hydantoin
d. imidazolidinyl urea
e. paraben mix

3. Which of the following is a screening agent for hydrocortisone allergy?

a. budesonide
b. clobetasol
c. desoximetasone
d. paraben mix
e. tixocortol pivalate

4. This allergen often is found in black synthetic henna tattoos:

a. paraben mix
b. potassium dichromate
c. PPD
d. quaternium-15
e. thimerosol

5. A patient with a documented allergy to paraben mix also should avoid the following agent:

a. bronopol
b. diazolidinyl urea
c. DMDM hydantoin
d. PPD
e. thiuram mix

Review the PDF of the fact sheet on RNA viruses with board-relevant, easy-to-review material. This fact sheet will review the spectrum of RNA viruses that cause or are associated with cutaneous manifestations. RNA virus classification, clinical findings, potential treatments, and other board-relevant facts will be discussed.

Practice Questions

1. Which virus is transmitted by Culex mosquitos?

a. chikungunya virus

b. coxsackievirus A16

c. dengue virus

d. human T-lymphotropic virus

e. West Nile virus

2. Which virus causes an illness associated with an enanthem of grey papules on the buccal mucosa?

a. Paramyxoviridae

b. Parvoviridae

c. Picornaviridae

d. Retroviridae

e. Togaviridae

3. Illness associated with which viral infection may be prevented via vaccination?

a. coxsackievirus

b. dengue virus

c. enterovirus

d. hepatitis C virus

e. togavirus

4. Which virus is classically associated with retro-orbital pain and a morbilliform eruption with areas of sparing?

a. chikungunya virus

b. dengue virus

c. human immunodeficiency virus

d. West Nile virus

e. yellow fever virus

5. Which of the following may be included in the treatment of hepatitis C virus (HCV) infection?

a. doxorubicin

b. HCV vaccine

c. ribavirin

d. tenofovir

e. vitamin A

1. Which virus is transmitted by Culex mosquitos?

a. chikungunya virus

b. coxsackievirus A16

c. dengue virus

d. human T-lymphotropic virus

e. West Nile virus

2. Which virus causes an illness associated with an enanthem of grey papules on the buccal mucosa?

a. Paramyxoviridae

b. Parvoviridae

c. Picornaviridae

d. Retroviridae

e. Togaviridae

3. Illness associated with which viral infection may be prevented via vaccination?

a. coxsackievirus

b. dengue virus c. enterovirus

d. hepatitis C virus

e. togavirus

4. Which virus is classically associated with retro-orbital pain and a morbilliform eruption with areas of sparing?

a. chikungunya virus

b. dengue virus

c. human immunodeficiency virus

d. West Nile virus

e. yellow fever virus

5. Which of the following may be included in the treatment of hepatitis C virus (HCV) infection?

a. doxorubicin

b. HCV vaccine

c. ribavirin

d. tenofovir

e. vitamin A

Review the PDF of the fact sheet on RNA viruses with board-relevant, easy-to-review material. This fact sheet will review the spectrum of RNA viruses that cause or are associated with cutaneous manifestations. RNA virus classification, clinical findings, potential treatments, and other board-relevant facts will be discussed.

Practice Questions

1. Which virus is transmitted by Culex mosquitos?

a. chikungunya virus

b. coxsackievirus A16

c. dengue virus

d. human T-lymphotropic virus

e. West Nile virus

2. Which virus causes an illness associated with an enanthem of grey papules on the buccal mucosa?

a. Paramyxoviridae

b. Parvoviridae

c. Picornaviridae

d. Retroviridae

e. Togaviridae

3. Illness associated with which viral infection may be prevented via vaccination?

a. coxsackievirus

b. dengue virus

c. enterovirus

d. hepatitis C virus

e. togavirus

4. Which virus is classically associated with retro-orbital pain and a morbilliform eruption with areas of sparing?

a. chikungunya virus

b. dengue virus

c. human immunodeficiency virus

d. West Nile virus

e. yellow fever virus

5. Which of the following may be included in the treatment of hepatitis C virus (HCV) infection?

a. doxorubicin

b. HCV vaccine

c. ribavirin

d. tenofovir

e. vitamin A

1. Which virus is transmitted by Culex mosquitos?

a. chikungunya virus

b. coxsackievirus A16

c. dengue virus

d. human T-lymphotropic virus

e. West Nile virus

2. Which virus causes an illness associated with an enanthem of grey papules on the buccal mucosa?

a. Paramyxoviridae

b. Parvoviridae

c. Picornaviridae

d. Retroviridae

e. Togaviridae

3. Illness associated with which viral infection may be prevented via vaccination?

a. coxsackievirus

b. dengue virus c. enterovirus

d. hepatitis C virus

e. togavirus

4. Which virus is classically associated with retro-orbital pain and a morbilliform eruption with areas of sparing?

a. chikungunya virus

b. dengue virus

c. human immunodeficiency virus

d. West Nile virus

e. yellow fever virus

5. Which of the following may be included in the treatment of hepatitis C virus (HCV) infection?

a. doxorubicin

b. HCV vaccine

c. ribavirin

d. tenofovir

e. vitamin A

Review the PDF of the fact sheet on RNA viruses with board-relevant, easy-to-review material. This fact sheet will review the spectrum of RNA viruses that cause or are associated with cutaneous manifestations. RNA virus classification, clinical findings, potential treatments, and other board-relevant facts will be discussed.

Practice Questions

1. Which virus is transmitted by Culex mosquitos?

a. chikungunya virus

b. coxsackievirus A16

c. dengue virus

d. human T-lymphotropic virus

e. West Nile virus

2. Which virus causes an illness associated with an enanthem of grey papules on the buccal mucosa?

a. Paramyxoviridae

b. Parvoviridae

c. Picornaviridae

d. Retroviridae

e. Togaviridae

3. Illness associated with which viral infection may be prevented via vaccination?

a. coxsackievirus

b. dengue virus

c. enterovirus

d. hepatitis C virus

e. togavirus

4. Which virus is classically associated with retro-orbital pain and a morbilliform eruption with areas of sparing?

a. chikungunya virus

b. dengue virus

c. human immunodeficiency virus

d. West Nile virus

e. yellow fever virus

5. Which of the following may be included in the treatment of hepatitis C virus (HCV) infection?

a. doxorubicin

b. HCV vaccine

c. ribavirin

d. tenofovir

e. vitamin A

1. Which virus is transmitted by Culex mosquitos?

a. chikungunya virus

b. coxsackievirus A16

c. dengue virus

d. human T-lymphotropic virus

e. West Nile virus

2. Which virus causes an illness associated with an enanthem of grey papules on the buccal mucosa?

a. Paramyxoviridae

b. Parvoviridae

c. Picornaviridae

d. Retroviridae

e. Togaviridae

3. Illness associated with which viral infection may be prevented via vaccination?

a. coxsackievirus

b. dengue virus c. enterovirus

d. hepatitis C virus

e. togavirus

4. Which virus is classically associated with retro-orbital pain and a morbilliform eruption with areas of sparing?

a. chikungunya virus

b. dengue virus

c. human immunodeficiency virus

d. West Nile virus

e. yellow fever virus

5. Which of the following may be included in the treatment of hepatitis C virus (HCV) infection?

a. doxorubicin

b. HCV vaccine

c. ribavirin

d. tenofovir

e. vitamin A

Review the PDF of the fact sheet on genetic pathways

After, test your knowledge by answering the 5 practice questions.

Practice Questions

1. A 6-month-old male infant presented to your dermatology clinic with an ash-leaf macule on the right back. What is the most common gene defect seen in this condition?

a. tuberin

b. merlin

c. neurofibromin

d. smoothened

e. hamartin

2. Bilateral acoustic neuromas are associated with what gene mutation?

a. NF1 (neurofibromin 1)

b. NF2 (neurofibromin 2)

c. PTCH1 (patched 1)

d. TSC1 (tuberous sclerosis 1)

e. TSC2 (tuberous sclerosis 2)

3. Which of the following would least likely be seen in neurofibromatosis types 1 or 2?

a. angiofibromas

b. café au lait macules

c. gliomas

d. Lisch nodules

e. neurofibromas

4. What protein is the patched 1 gene a receptor for?

a. fused

b. glioma-associated oncogene

c. smoothened

d. sonic hedgehog

e. suppressor of fused

5. A 20-year-old woman presented to your dermatology clinic with a history of numerous basal cell carcinomas. On physical examination, it is noted that she has numerous palmar pits. What finding could you find from radiograph of the head?

a. calcification of the dura

b. calcifications of the temporal lobe

c. cysts of the mandible

d. thickening of the corpus callosum

e. tumor of the cerebellum

1. A 6-month-old male infant presented to your dermatology clinic with an ash-leaf macule on the right back. What is the most common gene defect seen in this condition?

a. tuberin

b. merlin

c. neurofibromin

d. smoothened

e. hamartin

2. Bilateral acoustic neuromas are associated with what gene mutation?

a. NF1 (neurofibromin 1)

b. NF2 (neurofibromin 2)

c. PTCH1 (patched 1)

d. TSC1 (tuberous sclerosis 1)

e. TSC2 (tuberous sclerosis 2)

3. Which of the following would least likely be seen in neurofibromatosis types 1 or 2?

a. angiofibromas

b. café au lait macules

c. gliomas

d. Lisch nodules

e. neurofibromas

4. What protein is the patched 1 gene a receptor for?

a. fused

b. glioma-associated oncogene

c. smoothened

d. sonic hedgehog

e. suppressor of fused

5. A 20-year-old woman presented to your dermatology clinic with a history of numerous basal cell carcinomas. On physical examination, it is noted that she has numerous palmar pits. What finding could you find from radiograph of the head?

a. calcification of the dura

b. calcifications of the temporal lobe

c. cysts of the mandible

d. thickening of the corpus callosum

e. tumor of the cerebellum

Review the PDF of the fact sheet on genetic pathways

After, test your knowledge by answering the 5 practice questions.

Practice Questions

1. A 6-month-old male infant presented to your dermatology clinic with an ash-leaf macule on the right back. What is the most common gene defect seen in this condition?

a. tuberin

b. merlin

c. neurofibromin

d. smoothened

e. hamartin

2. Bilateral acoustic neuromas are associated with what gene mutation?

a. NF1 (neurofibromin 1)

b. NF2 (neurofibromin 2)

c. PTCH1 (patched 1)

d. TSC1 (tuberous sclerosis 1)

e. TSC2 (tuberous sclerosis 2)

3. Which of the following would least likely be seen in neurofibromatosis types 1 or 2?

a. angiofibromas

b. café au lait macules

c. gliomas

d. Lisch nodules

e. neurofibromas

4. What protein is the patched 1 gene a receptor for?

a. fused

b. glioma-associated oncogene

c. smoothened

d. sonic hedgehog

e. suppressor of fused

5. A 20-year-old woman presented to your dermatology clinic with a history of numerous basal cell carcinomas. On physical examination, it is noted that she has numerous palmar pits. What finding could you find from radiograph of the head?

a. calcification of the dura

b. calcifications of the temporal lobe

c. cysts of the mandible

d. thickening of the corpus callosum

e. tumor of the cerebellum

1. A 6-month-old male infant presented to your dermatology clinic with an ash-leaf macule on the right back. What is the most common gene defect seen in this condition?

a. tuberin

b. merlin

c. neurofibromin

d. smoothened

e. hamartin

2. Bilateral acoustic neuromas are associated with what gene mutation?

a. NF1 (neurofibromin 1)

b. NF2 (neurofibromin 2)

c. PTCH1 (patched 1)

d. TSC1 (tuberous sclerosis 1)

e. TSC2 (tuberous sclerosis 2)

3. Which of the following would least likely be seen in neurofibromatosis types 1 or 2?

a. angiofibromas

b. café au lait macules

c. gliomas

d. Lisch nodules

e. neurofibromas

4. What protein is the patched 1 gene a receptor for?

a. fused

b. glioma-associated oncogene

c. smoothened

d. sonic hedgehog

e. suppressor of fused

5. A 20-year-old woman presented to your dermatology clinic with a history of numerous basal cell carcinomas. On physical examination, it is noted that she has numerous palmar pits. What finding could you find from radiograph of the head?

a. calcification of the dura

b. calcifications of the temporal lobe

c. cysts of the mandible

d. thickening of the corpus callosum

e. tumor of the cerebellum

Review the PDF of the fact sheet on genetic pathways

After, test your knowledge by answering the 5 practice questions.

Practice Questions

1. A 6-month-old male infant presented to your dermatology clinic with an ash-leaf macule on the right back. What is the most common gene defect seen in this condition?

a. tuberin

b. merlin

c. neurofibromin

d. smoothened

e. hamartin

2. Bilateral acoustic neuromas are associated with what gene mutation?

a. NF1 (neurofibromin 1)

b. NF2 (neurofibromin 2)

c. PTCH1 (patched 1)

d. TSC1 (tuberous sclerosis 1)

e. TSC2 (tuberous sclerosis 2)

3. Which of the following would least likely be seen in neurofibromatosis types 1 or 2?

a. angiofibromas

b. café au lait macules

c. gliomas

d. Lisch nodules

e. neurofibromas

4. What protein is the patched 1 gene a receptor for?

a. fused

b. glioma-associated oncogene

c. smoothened

d. sonic hedgehog

e. suppressor of fused

5. A 20-year-old woman presented to your dermatology clinic with a history of numerous basal cell carcinomas. On physical examination, it is noted that she has numerous palmar pits. What finding could you find from radiograph of the head?

a. calcification of the dura

b. calcifications of the temporal lobe

c. cysts of the mandible

d. thickening of the corpus callosum

e. tumor of the cerebellum

1. A 6-month-old male infant presented to your dermatology clinic with an ash-leaf macule on the right back. What is the most common gene defect seen in this condition?

a. tuberin

b. merlin

c. neurofibromin

d. smoothened

e. hamartin

2. Bilateral acoustic neuromas are associated with what gene mutation?

a. NF1 (neurofibromin 1)

b. NF2 (neurofibromin 2)

c. PTCH1 (patched 1)

d. TSC1 (tuberous sclerosis 1)

e. TSC2 (tuberous sclerosis 2)

3. Which of the following would least likely be seen in neurofibromatosis types 1 or 2?

a. angiofibromas

b. café au lait macules

c. gliomas

d. Lisch nodules

e. neurofibromas

4. What protein is the patched 1 gene a receptor for?

a. fused

b. glioma-associated oncogene

c. smoothened

d. sonic hedgehog

e. suppressor of fused

5. A 20-year-old woman presented to your dermatology clinic with a history of numerous basal cell carcinomas. On physical examination, it is noted that she has numerous palmar pits. What finding could you find from radiograph of the head?

a. calcification of the dura

b. calcifications of the temporal lobe

c. cysts of the mandible

d. thickening of the corpus callosum

e. tumor of the cerebellum

Review the PDF of the fact sheet on blistering diseases in newborns

After, test your knowledge by answering the 5 practice questions.

Practice Questions

1. Which congenital blistering condition is caused by a mast cell growth factor receptor (KIT) mutation?

a. aplasia cutis congenita

b. bullous mastocytosis

c. congenital erosive and vesicular dermatosis

d. epidermolysis bullosa simplex

e. ichthyosis bullosa of Siemens

2. What gene mutation is present in acrodermatitis enteropathica?

a. collagen VII

b. keratin 2e

c. mast cell growth factor receptor

d. NF-κB essential modulator

e. solute carrier family 39 (zinc transporter), member 4

3. Which congenital blistering disease is associated with an increased risk of squamous cell carcinoma in adult patients?

a. aplasia cutis congenita

b. bullous mastocytosis

c. Kindler syndrome

d. pemphigus syphiliticus

e. varicella

4. Which congenital blistering condition can be caused by prenatal exposure to methimazole?

a. aplasia cutis congenita

b. bullous mastocytosis

c. dystrophic epidermolysis bullosa

d. Kindler syndrome

e. pemphigus syphiliticus

5. Which congenital blistering condition is caused by a mutation in transglutaminase 5?

a. acral peeling skin syndrome

b. aplasia cutis congenita

c. bullous mastocytosis

d. dystrophic epidermolysis bullosa

e. Kindler syndrome

1. Which congenital blistering condition is caused by a mast cell growth factor (KIT) receptor mutation?

a. aplasia cutis congenita

b. bullous mastocytosis

c. congenital erosive and vesicular dermatosis

d. epidermolysis bullosa simplex

e. ichthyosis bullosa of Siemens

2. What gene mutation is present in acrodermatitis enteropathica?

a. collagen VII

b. keratin 2e

c. mast cell growth factor receptor

d. NF-κB essential modulator

e. solute carrier family 39 (zinc transporter), member 4

3. Which congenital blistering disease is associated with an increased risk of squamous cell carcinoma in adult patients?

a. aplasia cutis congenita

b. bullous mastocytosis

c. Kindler syndrome

d. pemphigus syphiliticus

e. varicella

4. Which congenital blistering condition can be caused by prenatal exposure to methimazole?

a. aplasia cutis congenita

b. bullous mastocytosis

c. dystrophic epidermolysis bullosa

d. Kindler syndrome

e. pemphigus syphiliticus

5. Which congenital blistering condition is caused by a mutation in transglutaminase 5?

a. acral peeling skin syndrome

b. aplasia cutis congenita

c. bullous mastocytosis

d. dystrophic epidermolysis bullosa

e. Kindler syndrome

Review the PDF of the fact sheet on blistering diseases in newborns

After, test your knowledge by answering the 5 practice questions.

Practice Questions

1. Which congenital blistering condition is caused by a mast cell growth factor receptor (KIT) mutation?

a. aplasia cutis congenita

b. bullous mastocytosis

c. congenital erosive and vesicular dermatosis

d. epidermolysis bullosa simplex

e. ichthyosis bullosa of Siemens

2. What gene mutation is present in acrodermatitis enteropathica?

a. collagen VII

b. keratin 2e

c. mast cell growth factor receptor

d. NF-κB essential modulator

e. solute carrier family 39 (zinc transporter), member 4

3. Which congenital blistering disease is associated with an increased risk of squamous cell carcinoma in adult patients?

a. aplasia cutis congenita

b. bullous mastocytosis

c. Kindler syndrome

d. pemphigus syphiliticus

e. varicella

4. Which congenital blistering condition can be caused by prenatal exposure to methimazole?

a. aplasia cutis congenita

b. bullous mastocytosis

c. dystrophic epidermolysis bullosa

d. Kindler syndrome

e. pemphigus syphiliticus

5. Which congenital blistering condition is caused by a mutation in transglutaminase 5?

a. acral peeling skin syndrome

b. aplasia cutis congenita

c. bullous mastocytosis

d. dystrophic epidermolysis bullosa

e. Kindler syndrome

1. Which congenital blistering condition is caused by a mast cell growth factor (KIT) receptor mutation?

a. aplasia cutis congenita

b. bullous mastocytosis

c. congenital erosive and vesicular dermatosis

d. epidermolysis bullosa simplex

e. ichthyosis bullosa of Siemens

2. What gene mutation is present in acrodermatitis enteropathica?

a. collagen VII

b. keratin 2e

c. mast cell growth factor receptor

d. NF-κB essential modulator

e. solute carrier family 39 (zinc transporter), member 4

3. Which congenital blistering disease is associated with an increased risk of squamous cell carcinoma in adult patients?

a. aplasia cutis congenita

b. bullous mastocytosis

c. Kindler syndrome

d. pemphigus syphiliticus

e. varicella

4. Which congenital blistering condition can be caused by prenatal exposure to methimazole?

a. aplasia cutis congenita

b. bullous mastocytosis

c. dystrophic epidermolysis bullosa

d. Kindler syndrome

e. pemphigus syphiliticus

5. Which congenital blistering condition is caused by a mutation in transglutaminase 5?

a. acral peeling skin syndrome

b. aplasia cutis congenita

c. bullous mastocytosis

d. dystrophic epidermolysis bullosa

e. Kindler syndrome

Review the PDF of the fact sheet on blistering diseases in newborns

After, test your knowledge by answering the 5 practice questions.

Practice Questions

1. Which congenital blistering condition is caused by a mast cell growth factor receptor (KIT) mutation?

a. aplasia cutis congenita

b. bullous mastocytosis

c. congenital erosive and vesicular dermatosis

d. epidermolysis bullosa simplex

e. ichthyosis bullosa of Siemens

2. What gene mutation is present in acrodermatitis enteropathica?

a. collagen VII

b. keratin 2e

c. mast cell growth factor receptor

d. NF-κB essential modulator

e. solute carrier family 39 (zinc transporter), member 4

3. Which congenital blistering disease is associated with an increased risk of squamous cell carcinoma in adult patients?

a. aplasia cutis congenita

b. bullous mastocytosis

c. Kindler syndrome

d. pemphigus syphiliticus

e. varicella

4. Which congenital blistering condition can be caused by prenatal exposure to methimazole?

a. aplasia cutis congenita

b. bullous mastocytosis

c. dystrophic epidermolysis bullosa

d. Kindler syndrome

e. pemphigus syphiliticus

5. Which congenital blistering condition is caused by a mutation in transglutaminase 5?

a. acral peeling skin syndrome

b. aplasia cutis congenita

c. bullous mastocytosis

d. dystrophic epidermolysis bullosa

e. Kindler syndrome

1. Which congenital blistering condition is caused by a mast cell growth factor (KIT) receptor mutation?

a. aplasia cutis congenita

b. bullous mastocytosis

c. congenital erosive and vesicular dermatosis

d. epidermolysis bullosa simplex

e. ichthyosis bullosa of Siemens

2. What gene mutation is present in acrodermatitis enteropathica?

a. collagen VII

b. keratin 2e

c. mast cell growth factor receptor

d. NF-κB essential modulator

e. solute carrier family 39 (zinc transporter), member 4

3. Which congenital blistering disease is associated with an increased risk of squamous cell carcinoma in adult patients?

a. aplasia cutis congenita

b. bullous mastocytosis

c. Kindler syndrome

d. pemphigus syphiliticus

e. varicella

4. Which congenital blistering condition can be caused by prenatal exposure to methimazole?

a. aplasia cutis congenita

b. bullous mastocytosis

c. dystrophic epidermolysis bullosa

d. Kindler syndrome

e. pemphigus syphiliticus

5. Which congenital blistering condition is caused by a mutation in transglutaminase 5?

a. acral peeling skin syndrome

b. aplasia cutis congenita

c. bullous mastocytosis

d. dystrophic epidermolysis bullosa

e. Kindler syndrome

After, test your knowledge by answering the 5 practice questions.

Practice Questions

1. A 5-year-old girl presented to your clinic with an itchy rash in the vulvar and anal regions. The patient’s mother reported erythema and erosion of the anal area. Her pediatrician prescribed an oral antibiotic that showed good results but the condition recurred 2 weeks after she finished the medication. The most likely diagnosis is:

a. Behçet disease

b. pemphigus vulgaris

c. perianal streptococcal dermatitis

d. plasma cell vulvitis

e. vulvodynia

2. A 34-year-old woman presented with pain and a burning sensation on the vulva. She reported a history of migraines. On physical examination, mild erythema was noted on the labia majora and minora and the patient reported pain to the touch of a cotton-tipped applicator in the vestibule. The most likely diagnosis is:

a. Crohn disease

b. extramammary Paget disease

c. pemphigus vulgaris

d. plasma cell vulvitis

e. vulvodynia

3. A 25-year-old woman with a history of oral ulcers presented to your clinic with pain in the genital area. On physical examination, multiple ulcers were noted on the labia majora with no discharge. The most likely diagnosis is:

a. Behçet disease

b. Crohn disease

c. extramammary Paget disease

d. pemphigus vulgaris

e. plasma cell vulvitis

4. A 56-year-old woman presented to your clinic with vulvar pruritus and a burning sensation of 6 months’ duration. She had used a topical antibiotic and hydrocortisone cream 1% without relief. On physical examination, a red, irregular plaque is noted on the vestibule. The most likely diagnosis is:

a. Behçet disease

b. extramammary Paget disease

c. pemphigus vulgaris

d. plasma cell vulvitis

e. vulvodynia

5. A 44-year-old woman presented to your clinic with pain and edema of the vulva. At physical examination, erythema and fissures were noted around the anus with fistulas involving the perianal skin. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a. Behçet disease

b. Crohn disease

c. extramammary Paget disease

d. pemphigus vulgaris

e. plasma cell vulvitis

1. A 5-year-old girl presented to your clinic with an itchy rash in the vulvar and anal regions. The patient’s mother reported erythema and erosion of the anal area. Her pediatrician prescribed an oral antibiotic that showed good results but the condition recurred 2 weeks after she finished the medication. The most likely diagnosis is:

a. Behçet disease

b. pemphigus vulgaris

c. perianal streptococcal dermatitis

d. plasma cell vulvitis

e. vulvodynia

 
2. A 34-year-old woman presented with pain and a burning sensation on the vulva. She reported a history of migraines. On physical examination, mild erythema was noted on the labia majora and minora and the patient reported pain to the touch of a cotton-tipped applicator in the vestibule. The most likely diagnosis is:

a. Crohn disease

b. extramammary Paget disease

c. pemphigus vulgaris

d. plasma cell vulvitis

e. vulvodynia

3. A 25-year-old woman with a history of oral ulcers presented to your clinic with pain in the genital area. On physical examination, multiple ulcers were noted on the labia majora with no discharge. The most likely diagnosis is:

a. Behçet disease

b. Crohn disease

c. extramammary Paget disease

d. pemphigus vulgaris

e. plasma cell vulvitis

4. A 56-year-old woman presented to your clinic with vulvar pruritus and a burning sensation of 6 months’ duration. She had used a topical antibiotic and hydrocortisone cream 1% without relief. On physical examination, a red, irregular plaque is noted on the vestibule. The most likely diagnosis is:

a. Behçet disease

b. extramammary Paget disease

c. pemphigus vulgaris

d. plasma cell vulvitis

e. vulvodynia

5. A 44-year-old woman presented to your clinic with pain and edema of the vulva. At physical examination, erythema and fissures were noted around the anus with fistulas involving the perianal skin. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a. Behçet disease

b. Crohn disease

c. extramammary Paget disease

d. pemphigus vulgaris

e. plasma cell vulvitis

After, test your knowledge by answering the 5 practice questions.

Practice Questions

1. A 5-year-old girl presented to your clinic with an itchy rash in the vulvar and anal regions. The patient’s mother reported erythema and erosion of the anal area. Her pediatrician prescribed an oral antibiotic that showed good results but the condition recurred 2 weeks after she finished the medication. The most likely diagnosis is:

a. Behçet disease

b. pemphigus vulgaris

c. perianal streptococcal dermatitis

d. plasma cell vulvitis

e. vulvodynia

2. A 34-year-old woman presented with pain and a burning sensation on the vulva. She reported a history of migraines. On physical examination, mild erythema was noted on the labia majora and minora and the patient reported pain to the touch of a cotton-tipped applicator in the vestibule. The most likely diagnosis is:

a. Crohn disease

b. extramammary Paget disease

c. pemphigus vulgaris

d. plasma cell vulvitis

e. vulvodynia

3. A 25-year-old woman with a history of oral ulcers presented to your clinic with pain in the genital area. On physical examination, multiple ulcers were noted on the labia majora with no discharge. The most likely diagnosis is:

a. Behçet disease

b. Crohn disease

c. extramammary Paget disease

d. pemphigus vulgaris

e. plasma cell vulvitis

4. A 56-year-old woman presented to your clinic with vulvar pruritus and a burning sensation of 6 months’ duration. She had used a topical antibiotic and hydrocortisone cream 1% without relief. On physical examination, a red, irregular plaque is noted on the vestibule. The most likely diagnosis is:

a. Behçet disease

b. extramammary Paget disease

c. pemphigus vulgaris

d. plasma cell vulvitis

e. vulvodynia

5. A 44-year-old woman presented to your clinic with pain and edema of the vulva. At physical examination, erythema and fissures were noted around the anus with fistulas involving the perianal skin. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a. Behçet disease

b. Crohn disease

c. extramammary Paget disease

d. pemphigus vulgaris

e. plasma cell vulvitis

1. A 5-year-old girl presented to your clinic with an itchy rash in the vulvar and anal regions. The patient’s mother reported erythema and erosion of the anal area. Her pediatrician prescribed an oral antibiotic that showed good results but the condition recurred 2 weeks after she finished the medication. The most likely diagnosis is:

a. Behçet disease

b. pemphigus vulgaris

c. perianal streptococcal dermatitis

d. plasma cell vulvitis

e. vulvodynia

 
2. A 34-year-old woman presented with pain and a burning sensation on the vulva. She reported a history of migraines. On physical examination, mild erythema was noted on the labia majora and minora and the patient reported pain to the touch of a cotton-tipped applicator in the vestibule. The most likely diagnosis is:

a. Crohn disease

b. extramammary Paget disease

c. pemphigus vulgaris

d. plasma cell vulvitis

e. vulvodynia

3. A 25-year-old woman with a history of oral ulcers presented to your clinic with pain in the genital area. On physical examination, multiple ulcers were noted on the labia majora with no discharge. The most likely diagnosis is:

a. Behçet disease

b. Crohn disease

c. extramammary Paget disease

d. pemphigus vulgaris

e. plasma cell vulvitis

4. A 56-year-old woman presented to your clinic with vulvar pruritus and a burning sensation of 6 months’ duration. She had used a topical antibiotic and hydrocortisone cream 1% without relief. On physical examination, a red, irregular plaque is noted on the vestibule. The most likely diagnosis is:

a. Behçet disease

b. extramammary Paget disease

c. pemphigus vulgaris

d. plasma cell vulvitis

e. vulvodynia

5. A 44-year-old woman presented to your clinic with pain and edema of the vulva. At physical examination, erythema and fissures were noted around the anus with fistulas involving the perianal skin. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a. Behçet disease

b. Crohn disease

c. extramammary Paget disease

d. pemphigus vulgaris

e. plasma cell vulvitis

After, test your knowledge by answering the 5 practice questions.

Practice Questions

1. A 5-year-old girl presented to your clinic with an itchy rash in the vulvar and anal regions. The patient’s mother reported erythema and erosion of the anal area. Her pediatrician prescribed an oral antibiotic that showed good results but the condition recurred 2 weeks after she finished the medication. The most likely diagnosis is:

a. Behçet disease

b. pemphigus vulgaris

c. perianal streptococcal dermatitis

d. plasma cell vulvitis

e. vulvodynia

2. A 34-year-old woman presented with pain and a burning sensation on the vulva. She reported a history of migraines. On physical examination, mild erythema was noted on the labia majora and minora and the patient reported pain to the touch of a cotton-tipped applicator in the vestibule. The most likely diagnosis is:

a. Crohn disease

b. extramammary Paget disease

c. pemphigus vulgaris

d. plasma cell vulvitis

e. vulvodynia

3. A 25-year-old woman with a history of oral ulcers presented to your clinic with pain in the genital area. On physical examination, multiple ulcers were noted on the labia majora with no discharge. The most likely diagnosis is:

a. Behçet disease

b. Crohn disease

c. extramammary Paget disease

d. pemphigus vulgaris

e. plasma cell vulvitis

4. A 56-year-old woman presented to your clinic with vulvar pruritus and a burning sensation of 6 months’ duration. She had used a topical antibiotic and hydrocortisone cream 1% without relief. On physical examination, a red, irregular plaque is noted on the vestibule. The most likely diagnosis is:

a. Behçet disease

b. extramammary Paget disease

c. pemphigus vulgaris

d. plasma cell vulvitis

e. vulvodynia

5. A 44-year-old woman presented to your clinic with pain and edema of the vulva. At physical examination, erythema and fissures were noted around the anus with fistulas involving the perianal skin. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a. Behçet disease

b. Crohn disease

c. extramammary Paget disease

d. pemphigus vulgaris

e. plasma cell vulvitis

1. A 5-year-old girl presented to your clinic with an itchy rash in the vulvar and anal regions. The patient’s mother reported erythema and erosion of the anal area. Her pediatrician prescribed an oral antibiotic that showed good results but the condition recurred 2 weeks after she finished the medication. The most likely diagnosis is:

a. Behçet disease

b. pemphigus vulgaris

c. perianal streptococcal dermatitis

d. plasma cell vulvitis

e. vulvodynia

 
2. A 34-year-old woman presented with pain and a burning sensation on the vulva. She reported a history of migraines. On physical examination, mild erythema was noted on the labia majora and minora and the patient reported pain to the touch of a cotton-tipped applicator in the vestibule. The most likely diagnosis is:

a. Crohn disease

b. extramammary Paget disease

c. pemphigus vulgaris

d. plasma cell vulvitis

e. vulvodynia

3. A 25-year-old woman with a history of oral ulcers presented to your clinic with pain in the genital area. On physical examination, multiple ulcers were noted on the labia majora with no discharge. The most likely diagnosis is:

a. Behçet disease

b. Crohn disease

c. extramammary Paget disease

d. pemphigus vulgaris

e. plasma cell vulvitis

4. A 56-year-old woman presented to your clinic with vulvar pruritus and a burning sensation of 6 months’ duration. She had used a topical antibiotic and hydrocortisone cream 1% without relief. On physical examination, a red, irregular plaque is noted on the vestibule. The most likely diagnosis is:

a. Behçet disease

b. extramammary Paget disease

c. pemphigus vulgaris

d. plasma cell vulvitis

e. vulvodynia

5. A 44-year-old woman presented to your clinic with pain and edema of the vulva. At physical examination, erythema and fissures were noted around the anus with fistulas involving the perianal skin. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a. Behçet disease

b. Crohn disease

c. extramammary Paget disease

d. pemphigus vulgaris

e. plasma cell vulvitis

Review the PDF of the fact sheet on dermatoses of pregnancy

After, test your knowledge by answering the 5 practice questions.

Practice Questions

1. Which dermatosis of pregnancy occurs during the third trimester and is associated with multiple gestation pregnancies?

a. atopic eruption of pregnancy

b. gestational pemphigoid

c. intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy

d. prurigo of pregnancy

e. pruritic urticarial papules and plaques of pregnancy

2. Which dermatosis of pregnancy frequently flares after delivery?

a. atopic eruption of pregnancy

b. gestational pemphigoid

c. polymorphic eruption of pregnancy

d. prurigo gravidarum

e. prurigo of pregnancy

3. Which dermatosis of pregnancy has lesions that have a predilection for the abdominal striae?

a. cholestasis of pregnancy

b. gestational pemphigoid

c. prurigo gestationis

d. prurigo of pregnancy

e. pruritic urticarial papules and plaques of pregnancy

4. Which dermatosis of pregnancy has a risk for the development of hydatidiform moles and choriocarcinomas?

a. atopic eruption of pregnancy

b. cholestasis of pregnancy

c. gestational pemphigoid

d. pruritic urticarial papules and plaques of pregnancy

e. toxic erythema of pregnancy

5. Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy has been associated with:

a. fetal mortality as high as 13%

b. jaundice in 20% of cases

c. onset in the third trimester of pregnancy

d. recurrence in subsequent pregnancies

e. all of the above
 

The answers appear on the next page.

1. Which dermatosis of pregnancy occurs during the third trimester and is associated with multiple gestation pregnancies?

a. atopic eruption of pregnancy

b. gestational pemphigoid

c. intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy

d. prurigo of pregnancy

e. pruritic urticarial papules and plaques of pregnancy

2. Which dermatosis of pregnancy frequently flares after delivery?

a. atopic eruption of pregnancy

b. gestational pemphigoid

c. polymorphic eruption of pregnancy

d. prurigo gravidarum

e. prurigo of pregnancy

3. Which dermatosis of pregnancy has lesions that have a predilection for the abdominal striae?

a. cholestasis of pregnancy

b. gestational pemphigoid

c. prurigo gestationis

d. prurigo of pregnancy

e. pruritic urticarial papules and plaques of pregnancy

4. Which dermatosis of pregnancy has a risk for the development of hydatidiform moles and choriocarcinomas?

a. atopic eruption of pregnancy

b. cholestasis of pregnancy

c. gestational pemphigoid

d. pruritic urticarial papules and plaques of pregnancy

e. toxic erythema of pregnancy

5. Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy has been associated with:

a. fetal mortality as high as 13%

b. jaundice in 20% of cases

c. onset in the third trimester of pregnancy

d. recurrence in subsequent pregnancies

e. all of the above

Review the PDF of the fact sheet on dermatoses of pregnancy

After, test your knowledge by answering the 5 practice questions.

Practice Questions

1. Which dermatosis of pregnancy occurs during the third trimester and is associated with multiple gestation pregnancies?

a. atopic eruption of pregnancy

b. gestational pemphigoid

c. intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy

d. prurigo of pregnancy

e. pruritic urticarial papules and plaques of pregnancy

2. Which dermatosis of pregnancy frequently flares after delivery?

a. atopic eruption of pregnancy

b. gestational pemphigoid

c. polymorphic eruption of pregnancy

d. prurigo gravidarum

e. prurigo of pregnancy

3. Which dermatosis of pregnancy has lesions that have a predilection for the abdominal striae?

a. cholestasis of pregnancy

b. gestational pemphigoid

c. prurigo gestationis

d. prurigo of pregnancy

e. pruritic urticarial papules and plaques of pregnancy

4. Which dermatosis of pregnancy has a risk for the development of hydatidiform moles and choriocarcinomas?

a. atopic eruption of pregnancy

b. cholestasis of pregnancy

c. gestational pemphigoid

d. pruritic urticarial papules and plaques of pregnancy

e. toxic erythema of pregnancy

5. Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy has been associated with:

a. fetal mortality as high as 13%

b. jaundice in 20% of cases

c. onset in the third trimester of pregnancy

d. recurrence in subsequent pregnancies

e. all of the above
 

The answers appear on the next page.

1. Which dermatosis of pregnancy occurs during the third trimester and is associated with multiple gestation pregnancies?

a. atopic eruption of pregnancy

b. gestational pemphigoid

c. intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy

d. prurigo of pregnancy

e. pruritic urticarial papules and plaques of pregnancy

2. Which dermatosis of pregnancy frequently flares after delivery?

a. atopic eruption of pregnancy

b. gestational pemphigoid

c. polymorphic eruption of pregnancy

d. prurigo gravidarum

e. prurigo of pregnancy

3. Which dermatosis of pregnancy has lesions that have a predilection for the abdominal striae?

a. cholestasis of pregnancy

b. gestational pemphigoid

c. prurigo gestationis

d. prurigo of pregnancy

e. pruritic urticarial papules and plaques of pregnancy

4. Which dermatosis of pregnancy has a risk for the development of hydatidiform moles and choriocarcinomas?

a. atopic eruption of pregnancy

b. cholestasis of pregnancy

c. gestational pemphigoid

d. pruritic urticarial papules and plaques of pregnancy

e. toxic erythema of pregnancy

5. Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy has been associated with:

a. fetal mortality as high as 13%

b. jaundice in 20% of cases

c. onset in the third trimester of pregnancy

d. recurrence in subsequent pregnancies

e. all of the above

Review the PDF of the fact sheet on dermatoses of pregnancy

After, test your knowledge by answering the 5 practice questions.

Practice Questions

1. Which dermatosis of pregnancy occurs during the third trimester and is associated with multiple gestation pregnancies?

a. atopic eruption of pregnancy

b. gestational pemphigoid

c. intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy

d. prurigo of pregnancy

e. pruritic urticarial papules and plaques of pregnancy

2. Which dermatosis of pregnancy frequently flares after delivery?

a. atopic eruption of pregnancy

b. gestational pemphigoid

c. polymorphic eruption of pregnancy

d. prurigo gravidarum

e. prurigo of pregnancy

3. Which dermatosis of pregnancy has lesions that have a predilection for the abdominal striae?

a. cholestasis of pregnancy

b. gestational pemphigoid

c. prurigo gestationis

d. prurigo of pregnancy

e. pruritic urticarial papules and plaques of pregnancy

4. Which dermatosis of pregnancy has a risk for the development of hydatidiform moles and choriocarcinomas?

a. atopic eruption of pregnancy

b. cholestasis of pregnancy

c. gestational pemphigoid

d. pruritic urticarial papules and plaques of pregnancy

e. toxic erythema of pregnancy

5. Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy has been associated with:

a. fetal mortality as high as 13%

b. jaundice in 20% of cases

c. onset in the third trimester of pregnancy

d. recurrence in subsequent pregnancies

e. all of the above
 

The answers appear on the next page.

1. Which dermatosis of pregnancy occurs during the third trimester and is associated with multiple gestation pregnancies?

a. atopic eruption of pregnancy

b. gestational pemphigoid

c. intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy

d. prurigo of pregnancy

e. pruritic urticarial papules and plaques of pregnancy

2. Which dermatosis of pregnancy frequently flares after delivery?

a. atopic eruption of pregnancy

b. gestational pemphigoid

c. polymorphic eruption of pregnancy

d. prurigo gravidarum

e. prurigo of pregnancy

3. Which dermatosis of pregnancy has lesions that have a predilection for the abdominal striae?

a. cholestasis of pregnancy

b. gestational pemphigoid

c. prurigo gestationis

d. prurigo of pregnancy

e. pruritic urticarial papules and plaques of pregnancy

4. Which dermatosis of pregnancy has a risk for the development of hydatidiform moles and choriocarcinomas?

a. atopic eruption of pregnancy

b. cholestasis of pregnancy

c. gestational pemphigoid

d. pruritic urticarial papules and plaques of pregnancy

e. toxic erythema of pregnancy

5. Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy has been associated with:

a. fetal mortality as high as 13%

b. jaundice in 20% of cases

c. onset in the third trimester of pregnancy

d. recurrence in subsequent pregnancies

e. all of the above

Review the PDF of the fact sheet on chemical peels

After, test your knowledge by answering the 5 practice questions.

Practice Questions

1. Which one of the following peels produces “frosting” after application?

a. citric acid

b. glycolic acid

c. mandelic acid

d. salicylic acid

e. trichloroacetic acid

2. Which one of the following peels is lipophilic?

a. citric acid

b. glycolic acid

c. mandelic acid

d. salicylic acid

e. trichloroacetic acid

3. A Jessner solution peel contains which of the following 4 components?

a. lactic acid, resorcinol, salicylic acid, ethanol

b. lactic acid, resorcinol, salicylic acid, methanol

c. lactic acid, resorcinol, salicylic acid, retinoic acid

d. retinoic acid, resorcinol, phenol, ethanol

e. retinoic acid, resorcinol, glycolic acid, methanol

4. What is the most serious risk associated with phenol peels?

a. cardiac dysrhythmia

b. hearing loss

c. scarring

d. seizure

e. tinnitus

5. Which one of the following peels self-neutralizes?

a. citric acid

b. glycolic acid

c. lactic acid

d. mandelic acid

e. salicylic acid

The answers appear on the next page.

Practice Question Answers

1. Which one of the following peels produces “frosting” after application?

a. citric acid

b. glycolic acid

c. mandelic acid

d. salicylic acid

e. trichloroacetic acid

2. Which one of the following peels is lipophilic?

a. citric acid

b. glycolic acid

c. mandelic acid

d. salicylic acid

e. trichloroacetic acid

3. A Jessner solution peel contains which of the following 4 components?

a. lactic acid, resorcinol, salicylic acid, ethanol

b. lactic acid, resorcinol, salicylic acid, methanol

c. lactic acid, resorcinol, salicylic acid, retinoic acid

d. retinoic acid, resorcinol, phenol, ethanol

e. retinoic acid, resorcinol, glycolic acid, methanol

4. What is the most serious risk associated with phenol peels?

a. cardiac dysrhythmia

b. hearing loss

c. scarring

d. seizure

e. tinnitus

5. Which one of the following peels self-neutralizes?

a. citric acid

b. glycolic acid

c. lactic acid

d. mandelic acid

e. salicylic acid

Review the PDF of the fact sheet on chemical peels

After, test your knowledge by answering the 5 practice questions.

Practice Questions

1. Which one of the following peels produces “frosting” after application?

a. citric acid

b. glycolic acid

c. mandelic acid

d. salicylic acid

e. trichloroacetic acid

2. Which one of the following peels is lipophilic?

a. citric acid

b. glycolic acid

c. mandelic acid

d. salicylic acid

e. trichloroacetic acid

3. A Jessner solution peel contains which of the following 4 components?

a. lactic acid, resorcinol, salicylic acid, ethanol

b. lactic acid, resorcinol, salicylic acid, methanol

c. lactic acid, resorcinol, salicylic acid, retinoic acid

d. retinoic acid, resorcinol, phenol, ethanol

e. retinoic acid, resorcinol, glycolic acid, methanol

4. What is the most serious risk associated with phenol peels?

a. cardiac dysrhythmia

b. hearing loss

c. scarring

d. seizure

e. tinnitus

5. Which one of the following peels self-neutralizes?

a. citric acid

b. glycolic acid

c. lactic acid

d. mandelic acid

e. salicylic acid

The answers appear on the next page.

Practice Question Answers

1. Which one of the following peels produces “frosting” after application?

a. citric acid

b. glycolic acid

c. mandelic acid

d. salicylic acid

e. trichloroacetic acid

2. Which one of the following peels is lipophilic?

a. citric acid

b. glycolic acid

c. mandelic acid

d. salicylic acid

e. trichloroacetic acid

3. A Jessner solution peel contains which of the following 4 components?

a. lactic acid, resorcinol, salicylic acid, ethanol

b. lactic acid, resorcinol, salicylic acid, methanol

c. lactic acid, resorcinol, salicylic acid, retinoic acid

d. retinoic acid, resorcinol, phenol, ethanol

e. retinoic acid, resorcinol, glycolic acid, methanol

4. What is the most serious risk associated with phenol peels?

a. cardiac dysrhythmia

b. hearing loss

c. scarring

d. seizure

e. tinnitus

5. Which one of the following peels self-neutralizes?

a. citric acid

b. glycolic acid

c. lactic acid

d. mandelic acid

e. salicylic acid

Review the PDF of the fact sheet on chemical peels

After, test your knowledge by answering the 5 practice questions.

Practice Questions

1. Which one of the following peels produces “frosting” after application?

a. citric acid

b. glycolic acid

c. mandelic acid

d. salicylic acid

e. trichloroacetic acid

2. Which one of the following peels is lipophilic?

a. citric acid

b. glycolic acid

c. mandelic acid

d. salicylic acid

e. trichloroacetic acid

3. A Jessner solution peel contains which of the following 4 components?

a. lactic acid, resorcinol, salicylic acid, ethanol

b. lactic acid, resorcinol, salicylic acid, methanol

c. lactic acid, resorcinol, salicylic acid, retinoic acid

d. retinoic acid, resorcinol, phenol, ethanol

e. retinoic acid, resorcinol, glycolic acid, methanol

4. What is the most serious risk associated with phenol peels?

a. cardiac dysrhythmia

b. hearing loss

c. scarring

d. seizure

e. tinnitus

5. Which one of the following peels self-neutralizes?

a. citric acid

b. glycolic acid

c. lactic acid

d. mandelic acid

e. salicylic acid

The answers appear on the next page.

Practice Question Answers

1. Which one of the following peels produces “frosting” after application?

a. citric acid

b. glycolic acid

c. mandelic acid

d. salicylic acid

e. trichloroacetic acid

2. Which one of the following peels is lipophilic?

a. citric acid

b. glycolic acid

c. mandelic acid

d. salicylic acid

e. trichloroacetic acid

3. A Jessner solution peel contains which of the following 4 components?

a. lactic acid, resorcinol, salicylic acid, ethanol

b. lactic acid, resorcinol, salicylic acid, methanol

c. lactic acid, resorcinol, salicylic acid, retinoic acid

d. retinoic acid, resorcinol, phenol, ethanol

e. retinoic acid, resorcinol, glycolic acid, methanol

4. What is the most serious risk associated with phenol peels?

a. cardiac dysrhythmia

b. hearing loss

c. scarring

d. seizure

e. tinnitus

5. Which one of the following peels self-neutralizes?

a. citric acid

b. glycolic acid

c. lactic acid

d. mandelic acid

e. salicylic acid