Fast Facts for Board Review

1. The risk for subsequently developing squamous cell carcinoma in situ of the vulva is most strongly associated with:

a. candidiasis

b. cicatricial pemphigoid

c. lichen planus

d. lichen sclerosus

e. recurrent Trichomonas infections

2. Vitamin D supplements and topical antibiotics commonly are used to treat:

a. desquamative inflammatory vaginitis

b. dysesthetic vulvodynia

c. human papillomavirus–related severe squamous dysplasia of the vulva and vagina

d. lichen sclerosus

e. psoriasis

3. A 28-year-old diabetic woman presented to your clinic with well-developed vulvar pruritus. She was known to have an implanted copper intrauterine device. A Papanicolaou test would most likely reveal:

a. bacteria

b. herpetic virocytes

c. high-grade dysplastic squamous cells

d. koilocytic squamous cells

e. pseudohyphae

4. A 54-year-old woman with Sjögren syndrome and atrophic gastritis presented to your clinic with vulvar pruritus. Atrophy of the skin and mucosa with fissures was clinically suggestive of:

a. candidiasis

b. dysesthetic vulvodynia

c. lichen sclerosus

d. lichen simplex chronicus

e. psoriasis

5. A 48-year-old woman was referred to your clinic for evaluation of persistent burning vulvar pain of 3 months’ duration. She said she felt tired most of the time. On physical examination the vulva looked normal. Commonly this condition is associated with:

a. diabetes mellitus

b. fibromyalgia

c. hypothyroidism

d. iron deficiency anemia

e. psoriasis

1. The risk for subsequently developing squamous cell carcinoma in situ of the vulva is most strongly associated with:

a. candidiasis

b. cicatricial pemphigoid

c. lichen planus

d. lichen sclerosus

e. recurrent Trichomonas infections

2. Vitamin D supplements and topical antibiotics commonly are used to treat:

a. desquamative inflammatory vaginitis

b. dysesthetic vulvodynia

c. human papillomavirus–related severe squamous dysplasia of the vulva and vagina

d. lichen sclerosus

e. psoriasis

3. A 28-year-old diabetic woman presented to your clinic with well-developed vulvar pruritus. She was known to have an implanted copper intrauterine device. A Papanicolaou test would most likely reveal:

a. bacteria

b. herpetic virocytes

c. high-grade dysplastic squamous cells

d. koilocytic squamous cells

e. pseudohyphae

4. A 54-year-old woman with Sjögren syndrome and atrophic gastritis presented to your clinic with vulvar pruritus. Atrophy of the skin and mucosa with fissures was clinically suggestive of:

a. candidiasis

b. dysesthetic vulvodynia

c. lichen sclerosus

d. lichen simplex chronicus

e. psoriasis

5. A 48-year-old woman was referred to your clinic for evaluation of persistent burning vulvar pain of 3 months’ duration. She said she felt tired most of the time. On physical examination the vulva looked normal. Commonly this condition is associated with:

a. diabetes mellitus

b. fibromyalgia

c. hypothyroidism

d. iron deficiency anemia

e. psoriasis

1. The risk for subsequently developing squamous cell carcinoma in situ of the vulva is most strongly associated with:

a. candidiasis

b. cicatricial pemphigoid

c. lichen planus

d. lichen sclerosus

e. recurrent Trichomonas infections

2. Vitamin D supplements and topical antibiotics commonly are used to treat:

a. desquamative inflammatory vaginitis

b. dysesthetic vulvodynia

c. human papillomavirus–related severe squamous dysplasia of the vulva and vagina

d. lichen sclerosus

e. psoriasis

3. A 28-year-old diabetic woman presented to your clinic with well-developed vulvar pruritus. She was known to have an implanted copper intrauterine device. A Papanicolaou test would most likely reveal:

a. bacteria

b. herpetic virocytes

c. high-grade dysplastic squamous cells

d. koilocytic squamous cells

e. pseudohyphae

4. A 54-year-old woman with Sjögren syndrome and atrophic gastritis presented to your clinic with vulvar pruritus. Atrophy of the skin and mucosa with fissures was clinically suggestive of:

a. candidiasis

b. dysesthetic vulvodynia

c. lichen sclerosus

d. lichen simplex chronicus

e. psoriasis

5. A 48-year-old woman was referred to your clinic for evaluation of persistent burning vulvar pain of 3 months’ duration. She said she felt tired most of the time. On physical examination the vulva looked normal. Commonly this condition is associated with:

a. diabetes mellitus

b. fibromyalgia

c. hypothyroidism

d. iron deficiency anemia

e. psoriasis

1. A 71-year-old woman with a pacemaker/defibrillator is undergoing Mohs micrographic surgery. Which method is the safest for hemostasis during surgery?

a. biterminal electrocoagulation
b. electrocautery
c. electrodesiccation
d. monopolar electrocoagulation
e. monoterminal electrocoagulation

2. Which method usually causes the deepest level of tissue damage during hemostasis?

a. electrocautery
b. electrocoagulation
c. electrodesiccation
d. electrofulguration
e. electrosection

3. Which electrosurgical mode has the highest maximum output power?

a. bipolar mode

b. coagulation mode

c. cutting mode

d. fulguration mode

e. monoterminal mode

4. A 59-year-old woman is scheduled for curettage and electrodesiccation of a superficial basal cell carcinoma on the upper back. Which method is preferred for deep electrodesiccation?

a. large-tip electrode and coagulation current
b. large-tip electrode in fulguration mode
c. small-tip electrode and coagulation current
d. small-tip electrode and cutting current
e. small-tip electrode in fulguration mode

5. A 32-year-old Asian woman is scheduled for superficial electrosurgical destruction of a small flat seborrheic keratosis on the face. Which treatment method is preferred?

a. large-tip electrode and coagulation current
b. large-tip electrode and cutting current
c. large-tip electrode and fulguration current in noncontact mode at the maximum power
d. small-tip electrode and cutting current
e. small-tip electrode and fulguration current at the maximum power

1. A 71-year-old woman with a pacemaker/defibrillator is undergoing Mohs micrographic surgery. Which method is the safest for hemostasis during surgery?

a. biterminal electrocoagulation
b. electrocautery
c. electrodesiccation
d. monopolar electrocoagulation
e. monoterminal electrocoagulation

2. Which method usually causes the deepest level of tissue damage during hemostasis?

a. electrocautery
b. electrocoagulation
c. electrodesiccation
d. electrofulguration
e. electrosection

3. Which electrosurgical mode has the highest maximum output power?

a. bipolar mode

b. coagulation mode

c. cutting mode

d. fulguration mode

e. monoterminal mode

4. A 59-year-old woman is scheduled for curettage and electrodesiccation of a superficial basal cell carcinoma on the upper back. Which method is preferred for deep electrodesiccation?

a. large-tip electrode and coagulation current
b. large-tip electrode in fulguration mode
c. small-tip electrode and coagulation current
d. small-tip electrode and cutting current
e. small-tip electrode in fulguration mode

5. A 32-year-old Asian woman is scheduled for superficial electrosurgical destruction of a small flat seborrheic keratosis on the face. Which treatment method is preferred?

a. large-tip electrode and coagulation current
b. large-tip electrode and cutting current
c. large-tip electrode and fulguration current in noncontact mode at the maximum power
d. small-tip electrode and cutting current
e. small-tip electrode and fulguration current at the maximum power

1. A 71-year-old woman with a pacemaker/defibrillator is undergoing Mohs micrographic surgery. Which method is the safest for hemostasis during surgery?

a. biterminal electrocoagulation
b. electrocautery
c. electrodesiccation
d. monopolar electrocoagulation
e. monoterminal electrocoagulation

2. Which method usually causes the deepest level of tissue damage during hemostasis?

a. electrocautery
b. electrocoagulation
c. electrodesiccation
d. electrofulguration
e. electrosection

3. Which electrosurgical mode has the highest maximum output power?

a. bipolar mode

b. coagulation mode

c. cutting mode

d. fulguration mode

e. monoterminal mode

4. A 59-year-old woman is scheduled for curettage and electrodesiccation of a superficial basal cell carcinoma on the upper back. Which method is preferred for deep electrodesiccation?

a. large-tip electrode and coagulation current
b. large-tip electrode in fulguration mode
c. small-tip electrode and coagulation current
d. small-tip electrode and cutting current
e. small-tip electrode in fulguration mode

5. A 32-year-old Asian woman is scheduled for superficial electrosurgical destruction of a small flat seborrheic keratosis on the face. Which treatment method is preferred?

a. large-tip electrode and coagulation current
b. large-tip electrode and cutting current
c. large-tip electrode and fulguration current in noncontact mode at the maximum power
d. small-tip electrode and cutting current
e. small-tip electrode and fulguration current at the maximum power

1. Which vitamin supplement has shown anticoagulant properties and therefore may lead to postoperative complications in surgical patients?

a. vitamin B₁
b. vitamin B₁₂
c. vitamin C
d. vitamin D
e. vitamin E

2. Which of the following anticoagulants is considered a cyclooxygenase inhibitor?

a. aspirin
b. dabigatran etexilate
c. heparin
d. low-molecular-weight heparin
e. warfarin sodium

3. Which of the following coagulation factors is not vitamin K–dependent?

a. factor II
b. factor V
c. factor VII
d. factor IX
e. factor X

4. Which anticoagulant has a potentially serious interaction with proton pump inhibitors?

a. bivalirudin
b. clopidogrel sulfate
c. fish oil
d. heparin
e. warfarin sodium

5. Which of the following anticoagulants is not administered orally?

a. apixaban
b. dabigatran etexilate
c. ticagrelor
d. tinzaparin
e. warfarin sodium

1. Which vitamin supplement has shown anticoagulant properties and therefore may lead to postoperative complications in surgical patients?

a. vitamin B₁
b. vitamin B₁₂
c. vitamin C
d. vitamin D
e. vitamin E

2. Which of the following anticoagulants is considered a cyclooxygenase inhibitor?

a. aspirin
b. dabigatran etexilate
c. heparin
d. low-molecular-weight heparin
e. warfarin sodium

3. Which of the following coagulation factors is not vitamin K–dependent?

a. factor II
b. factor V
c. factor VII
d. factor IX
e. factor X

4. Which anticoagulant has a potentially serious interaction with proton pump inhibitors?

a. bivalirudin
b. clopidogrel sulfate
c. fish oil
d. heparin
e. warfarin sodium

5. Which of the following anticoagulants is not administered orally?

a. apixaban
b. dabigatran etexilate
c. ticagrelor
d. tinzaparin
e. warfarin sodium

1. Which vitamin supplement has shown anticoagulant properties and therefore may lead to postoperative complications in surgical patients?

a. vitamin B₁
b. vitamin B₁₂
c. vitamin C
d. vitamin D
e. vitamin E

2. Which of the following anticoagulants is considered a cyclooxygenase inhibitor?

a. aspirin
b. dabigatran etexilate
c. heparin
d. low-molecular-weight heparin
e. warfarin sodium

3. Which of the following coagulation factors is not vitamin K–dependent?

a. factor II
b. factor V
c. factor VII
d. factor IX
e. factor X

4. Which anticoagulant has a potentially serious interaction with proton pump inhibitors?

a. bivalirudin
b. clopidogrel sulfate
c. fish oil
d. heparin
e. warfarin sodium

5. Which of the following anticoagulants is not administered orally?

a. apixaban
b. dabigatran etexilate
c. ticagrelor
d. tinzaparin
e. warfarin sodium

1. Activation of the procerus muscle causes:

a. forehead wrinkling
b. infraorbital wrinkling
c. nasal root wrinkling
d. periocular wrinkling
e. suprabrow wrinkling

2. Botulinum toxin type A cleaves which of the following presynaptic proteins?

a. serotonin
b. acetylcholine
c. synaptobrevin
d. synaptosomal associated protein of 25 kDa (SNAP-25)
e. syntaxin

3. Which of the following muscles is the most responsible for creating deep vertical lines in the glabellar area?

a. corrugator supercilii
b. depressor supercilii
c. levator palpebrae superioris
d. orbicularis oculi
e. procerus

4. Eyelid ptosis is a common side effect due to inadvertent migration of botulinum toxin to which muscle?

a. depressor superciliaris
b. frontalis
c. levator palpebrae superioris
d. nasalis
e. orbicularis oculi

5. Apraclonidine ophthalmic drops can give a 2- to 3-mm elevation in a ptotic eyelid by which mechanism?

a. activation of the lateral orbicularis oculi
b. activation of the upper orbicularis oculi
c. contraction of Müller muscle
d. weakening of the levator palpebrae superioris
e. weakening of the lower frontalis

1. Activation of the procerus muscle causes:

a. forehead wrinkling
b. infraorbital wrinkling
c. nasal root wrinkling
d. periocular wrinkling
e. suprabrow wrinkling

2. Botulinum toxin type A cleaves which of the following presynaptic proteins?

a. serotonin
b. acetylcholine
c. synaptobrevin
d. synaptosomal associated protein of 25 kDa (SNAP-25)
e. syntaxin

3. Which of the following muscles is the most responsible for creating deep vertical lines in the glabellar area?

a. corrugator supercilii
b. depressor supercilii
c. levator palpebrae superioris
d. orbicularis oculi
e. procerus

4. Eyelid ptosis is a common side effect due to inadvertent migration of botulinum toxin to which muscle?

a. depressor superciliaris
b. frontalis
c. levator palpebrae superioris
d. nasalis
e. orbicularis oculi

5. Apraclonidine ophthalmic drops can give a 2- to 3-mm elevation in a ptotic eyelid by which mechanism?

a. activation of the lateral orbicularis oculi
b. activation of the upper orbicularis oculi
c. contraction of Müller muscle
d. weakening of the levator palpebrae superioris
e. weakening of the lower frontalis

1. Activation of the procerus muscle causes:

a. forehead wrinkling
b. infraorbital wrinkling
c. nasal root wrinkling
d. periocular wrinkling
e. suprabrow wrinkling

2. Botulinum toxin type A cleaves which of the following presynaptic proteins?

a. serotonin
b. acetylcholine
c. synaptobrevin
d. synaptosomal associated protein of 25 kDa (SNAP-25)
e. syntaxin

3. Which of the following muscles is the most responsible for creating deep vertical lines in the glabellar area?

a. corrugator supercilii
b. depressor supercilii
c. levator palpebrae superioris
d. orbicularis oculi
e. procerus

4. Eyelid ptosis is a common side effect due to inadvertent migration of botulinum toxin to which muscle?

a. depressor superciliaris
b. frontalis
c. levator palpebrae superioris
d. nasalis
e. orbicularis oculi

5. Apraclonidine ophthalmic drops can give a 2- to 3-mm elevation in a ptotic eyelid by which mechanism?

a. activation of the lateral orbicularis oculi
b. activation of the upper orbicularis oculi
c. contraction of Müller muscle
d. weakening of the levator palpebrae superioris
e. weakening of the lower frontalis

1. Patients with a documented contact allergy to caine mix should avoid all of the following except:

a. benzocaine
b. butacaine
c. lidocaine
d. procaine
e. tetracaine

2. A patient with atopic dermatitis whose condition is worsening with the use of topical steroids is referred for patch testing and found to have positivity to budesonide. Which of the following would be an appropriate topical steroid to prescribe to this patient?

a. desonide
b. desoximetasone
c. fluocinolone
d. fluocinonide
e. triamcinolone

3. A patient with a documented contact allergy to carba mix should avoid which of the following systemic medications?

a. ciprofloxacin
b. disulfiram
c. gold sodium thiomalate
d. hydroxyzine
e. piroxicam

4. Bronopol (2-bromo-2-nitropropane-1,3-diol) can cross-react with all of the following except:

a. diazolidinyl urea
b. DMDM hydantoin
c. imidazolidinyl urea
d. p-aminobenzoic acid
e. quaternium-15

5. Allergy to cocamidopropyl betaine is thought to be secondary to which of the following?

a. amidoamine
b. benzoic acid
c. bronopol
d. Myroxylon pereirae
e. N-isopropyl-N'-phenyl parapheylenediamine

1. Patients with a documented contact allergy to caine mix should avoid all of the following except:

a. benzocaine
b. butacaine
c. lidocaine
d. procaine
e. tetracaine

2. A patient with atopic dermatitis whose condition is worsening with the use of topical steroids is referred for patch testing and found to have positivity to budesonide. Which of the following would be an appropriate topical steroid to prescribe to this patient?

a. desonide
b. desoximetasone
c. fluocinolone
d. fluocinonide
e. triamcinolone

3. A patient with a documented contact allergy to carba mix should avoid which of the following systemic medications?

a. ciprofloxacin
b. disulfiram
c. gold sodium thiomalate
d. hydroxyzine
e. piroxicam

4. Bronopol (2-bromo-2-nitropropane-1,3-diol) can cross-react with all of the following except:

a. diazolidinyl urea
b. DMDM hydantoin
c. imidazolidinyl urea
d. p-aminobenzoic acid
e. quaternium-15

5. Allergy to cocamidopropyl betaine is thought to be secondary to which of the following?

a. amidoamine
b. benzoic acid
c. bronopol
d. Myroxylon pereirae
e. N-isopropyl-N'-phenyl parapheylenediamine

1. Patients with a documented contact allergy to caine mix should avoid all of the following except:

a. benzocaine
b. butacaine
c. lidocaine
d. procaine
e. tetracaine

2. A patient with atopic dermatitis whose condition is worsening with the use of topical steroids is referred for patch testing and found to have positivity to budesonide. Which of the following would be an appropriate topical steroid to prescribe to this patient?

a. desonide
b. desoximetasone
c. fluocinolone
d. fluocinonide
e. triamcinolone

3. A patient with a documented contact allergy to carba mix should avoid which of the following systemic medications?

a. ciprofloxacin
b. disulfiram
c. gold sodium thiomalate
d. hydroxyzine
e. piroxicam

4. Bronopol (2-bromo-2-nitropropane-1,3-diol) can cross-react with all of the following except:

a. diazolidinyl urea
b. DMDM hydantoin
c. imidazolidinyl urea
d. p-aminobenzoic acid
e. quaternium-15

5. Allergy to cocamidopropyl betaine is thought to be secondary to which of the following?

a. amidoamine
b. benzoic acid
c. bronopol
d. Myroxylon pereirae
e. N-isopropyl-N'-phenyl parapheylenediamine